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Question for the lawyers:
Parties A and B agree on a contract. Party B is responsible for printing the contracts for signatures, but before printing them changes the contract without informing Party A. A doesn't catch the change and signs the contract.
Is A screwed? Or is there an argument that there wasn't a meeting of the minds because one party unilaterally changed the contract without informing the other party?
(This may or may not be related to my landlord situation.)
The answer to almost every legal question is "it depends." In your scenario you are likely stuck with the written terms. The rule is called the parol evidence rule.