fairholme_wannabe
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For anyone with interest in capital markets and finance:
I am presently researching volatility (historical volatility and implied volatility), and the distributions of each have me completely baffled. First, let me preface this by saying that implied volatility is proxied via the ^VXO instead of the ^VIX, as it has more history.
That said, the mean of the ^VXO is 8 points higher (or approximately 62% higher) than the mean historical volatility across the life of my study (20+ years). Additionally, the distribution patterns are pretty dissimilar, as historical volatility is distributed with both much greater skewness and kurtosis than the ^VXO. WTF!? Any explications for why this is observed?
I am presently researching volatility (historical volatility and implied volatility), and the distributions of each have me completely baffled. First, let me preface this by saying that implied volatility is proxied via the ^VXO instead of the ^VIX, as it has more history.
That said, the mean of the ^VXO is 8 points higher (or approximately 62% higher) than the mean historical volatility across the life of my study (20+ years). Additionally, the distribution patterns are pretty dissimilar, as historical volatility is distributed with both much greater skewness and kurtosis than the ^VXO. WTF!? Any explications for why this is observed?