Is anyone familiar with DM Armstrong's objection to Gilbert Ryle's use of disposition to explain how mental events can be defined as behavioral events even when there is no observable behavior? From The Mind-Body Problem (Nestview, 1999) pp. 55-65 How about the Smith and Jones "many minds" objection to substance dualism in their The Philosophy of Mind (Cambridge, 1986) pp. 47-49? I would like to construct a detailed analysis of either of these positions (in favor of Armstrong, against Smith and Jones), but I'm really struggling to tease out the details of their argument (their assumptions, premises and logical moves) from the cited works above. Any help?