UNfortunately for you, I signed the receipt stating "I Agree to pay above total according to my card issuer agreement". The total had the original $.41 charge and my tip plus the total of that. And I gave it to the bartender who picked it up and finished his work. My friends and did not run out of the bar at that moment. We sat back down at a table a few feet from the bar and finished our drink and then left. I find it hard to believe some of you here agree with an establishment changing their charge on your credit card behind you back. That's essentially why I'm disputing it. I think I misread your post before. Am I right that (to the extent you can recall, since it sounds like you might be uncertain) you put a tip of $10 or thereabouts on the credit card in addition to leaving $40 cash, so the bar (if we assume they actually got the cash and a server or somebody else didn't pocket it) would have had a total of roughly $50 against a tab of about $42 if they hadn't changed the amount billed to your card? I don't disagree that a merchant shouldn't be able to change the amount billed to your credit card without your authorization. Nor do I understand anybody else to dispute that in the abstract. I think what some of us were questioning were whether it shouldn't be viewed as a "no harm, no foul" and whether you shouldn't just let it go. It sounds like the solution the credit card company is proposing - basically refunding you enough money to put you back where you would have been if the original bill had been correct and no large cash tip had been left - is pretty reasonable, no?