Originally Posted by Piobaire
Can a person really taste the difference between 40% ABV and 37?
And between 37 and 34? 34 and 31? 31 and 28? If this is the beginning, where will it end, if they try to argue this way?
As an answer to your question, I think it completely depends on the liquor and the person drinking it. Some liquors are more prone to dilution than others while some people are more or less sensitive to alcohol (in a bad way, as in numbing), etc.
FWIW, Maker's Mark has 45% in Germany. Is this the regular proof in the US too? 42% would still be relatively high, but their reasoning is utter bullshit. If it didn't change the taste, why haven't they reduced the abv before?