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Is my English getting better? - Page 2

post #16 of 40
it's 'its', not 'it'.
post #17 of 40
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it's 'its', not 'it'.
What are you referring to?
post #18 of 40
Thread Starter 
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I meant there's not much room for improvement.
So am I fluent (not pucunctuation for purpose)
post #19 of 40
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(Fabienne @ May 13 2005,21:57) I meant there's not much room for improvement.
So am I fluent (not pucunctuation for purpose)
Heh, I think your post just answered your question. What do you mean by "not punctuation for purpose?"
post #20 of 40
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(faustian bargain @ May 13 2005,14:39) it's 'its', not 'it'.
What are you referring to?
this:
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My last one was to master the damn posessive it
just giving him a hard time, while attempting alliterative cleverness.
post #21 of 40
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(Roy @ May 13 2005,12:07)
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Originally Posted by Fabienne,May 13 2005,17:57
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Originally Posted by Roy,May 13 2005,11:33
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Originally Posted by RJMan,May 13 2005,17:10
Your english has improved from farmer to gangster.
I hope that some day my English will improve as much as Ernests. It's pretty impressive how much his English improved since a month ago.
Come on, your English is usually excellent.
It's ok. But I meant that Ernest really has shown a drastic improvement. That's something that i'd like to see too. Not only in my English though. There are two other languages which I want to improve drastically, namely French and Arabic. My French is terrible, even after living in a French speaking country for two years. In about half a year I will go and live in an Arab country, I've just started taking lessons and so far it's going ok. But I strive to improve my languages as good as I can.
I meant there's not much room for improvement. I think J should create a new subcategory: a francophone forum.  That way, those who don't get to practice their French often enough would have an opportunity. As for Arabic, enroll in the US Navy, they're looking for linguists.  Intensive Arabic courses 24/7...
I like the idea of a French language board here.
post #22 of 40
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I like the idea of a French language board here.
I vote for Ernest as moderator.
post #23 of 40
It has been really bad today. What happened?
post #24 of 40
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What are you referring to?
"To what are you referring?" Don't end your sentences with prepositions.
post #25 of 40
Thread Starter 
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(jmswentworth @ May 13 2005,09:47) What are you referring to?
"To what are you referring?" Don't end your sentences with prepositions.
What are you talking about?
post #26 of 40
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(jmswentworth @ May 13 2005,09:47) What are you referring to?
"To what are you referring?" Don't end your sentences with prepositions.
Pffff...
post #27 of 40
[quote]
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Originally Posted by Kent Wang,May 16 2005,20:42
What are you talking about?
"About what are you talking?" Prepositions (e.g. to, about, with, from, for, etc) should not be at the end of a sentence. Well, not in more formal speech anyway. It can also get a little awkward in slang. E.g. 'I am not the person with whom to mess.'
post #28 of 40
English is probably among the most difficult languages to learn. And that is partly due to all the other language influences on it. Causing spelling changes with no apparent logic. The word "weird" is a good example. Runs counter to the rule of "i before e". My Dad came here from Italy and alwys had a hard time spelling correctly. He said he didn't have that problem with Italian because the word is spelled exactly the way it sounds. And another confusing anomaly was exposed in this thread. That of the possessive form of "it." Why does it have to be different for that one word than it is for most other words? For example: One can say "Henry's over there." We know it means "Henry is over there." Or, one can say "Is this Henry's?" We know it asks whether something belongs to Henry. We know these meanings from the context. Why does it have to be different with "it?" No sense.
post #29 of 40
""To what are you referring?" Don't end your sentences with prepositions. " This is a lousy rule. And rightly criticized by none other than Churchill, who said "Ending a sentence with a preposition is something up with which I shall not put."
post #30 of 40
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And another confusing anomaly was exposed in this thread. That of the possessive form of "it." Why does it have to be different for that one word than it is for most other words? For example: One can say "Henry's over there." We know it means "Henry is over there." Or, one can say "Is this Henry's?" We know it asks whether something belongs to Henry. We know these meanings from the context. Why does it have to be different with "it?" No sense.
Well, I found it logical once it got pointed out to me. There are two contenders for the form it's: the 'it is' and the possessive it. One had to give way to avoid ambiguity and it was the possessive it that lost the apostrophe. I agree though, why make a special rule for this? Have any of you got any more sins that us foreigners regularly commit against English? I could suggest inapropriate ordering of words, but it's a bit hard to fix. B
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